For those who have access or are familiar with the Kaplan Power PM Exam Solutions, I have a few questions:
1) Problem 4.2, how did they convert the delta-->wye impedances to be 4Z/3?
2) Problem 4.4, why is the cos 22.62 degrees lagging? Is it because it is positive so that means inductive?
3) Problem 4.16, why is I_1=(Y/2)*V®?
4) Problem 4.17, how exactly do you calculate cosh (0.3560/_81.748 degrees)?
5) Problem 4.25, why is R_sc assumed to be split equally between the primary and secondary windings?
6) Problem 4.30, can anyone solve this per unit problem in a less complex method than they way Kaplan proposes?
7) Problem 4.38, how does I_l have cos(PF) = cos(0.4) as its angle? Is it due to 0.4 = R/X = 5/12?
I know that's a lot of questions, but I'm getting desperate and wound-up as the test date is inching closer by the day!
Thanks a bunch!
1) Problem 4.2, how did they convert the delta-->wye impedances to be 4Z/3?
2) Problem 4.4, why is the cos 22.62 degrees lagging? Is it because it is positive so that means inductive?
3) Problem 4.16, why is I_1=(Y/2)*V®?
4) Problem 4.17, how exactly do you calculate cosh (0.3560/_81.748 degrees)?
5) Problem 4.25, why is R_sc assumed to be split equally between the primary and secondary windings?
6) Problem 4.30, can anyone solve this per unit problem in a less complex method than they way Kaplan proposes?
7) Problem 4.38, how does I_l have cos(PF) = cos(0.4) as its angle? Is it due to 0.4 = R/X = 5/12?
I know that's a lot of questions, but I'm getting desperate and wound-up as the test date is inching closer by the day!
Thanks a bunch!