I was going through the SE3 surveys and found something interesting. In the 2016 Pay Survey being a sole practitioner was found to be correlated with +42k in pay from the base pay for men and -7k from the base pay for women in the model.
In the 2018 SE3 Survey a model was created based off the data that correlated being a sole practitioner with -60k in pay from the base in the model (not broken down by gender).
Even knowing that the 2 different years had 2 different models and the base pay is different for each model (IE you cant directly compare +42k with -60k), and recognizing that one year it was broken down by gender and the next year it was not, doesn't this seem like an extreme relative difference? I didn't find any commentary on the subject in the reports. I was wondering if any of the good folks on EB had any thoughts on the matter. The reports can be found at the link below:
https://www.se3committee.com/publications
In the 2018 SE3 Survey a model was created based off the data that correlated being a sole practitioner with -60k in pay from the base in the model (not broken down by gender).
Even knowing that the 2 different years had 2 different models and the base pay is different for each model (IE you cant directly compare +42k with -60k), and recognizing that one year it was broken down by gender and the next year it was not, doesn't this seem like an extreme relative difference? I didn't find any commentary on the subject in the reports. I was wondering if any of the good folks on EB had any thoughts on the matter. The reports can be found at the link below:
https://www.se3committee.com/publications