that does makes some sense, so the total impedance is the impedance of system (with 40MVA = 0.025p.u.) + impedance of Transformer which is 4% impedance so z transf (p.u.) = 4% = 0.04They solve the problem on a 1MVA base. The impedance of the system is 100% (1pu) on a 40 MVA base. When you convert that to a 1 MVA base you get (1pu*1MVA/40MVA) 0.025.
Correct. And since Vpu = 1, the per unit short circuit current is equal to the inverse of the equivalent per unit impedance, or: Ipu = 1/Zeq-pu.4 hours ago, rmsg said:
that does makes some sense, so the total impedance is the impedance of system (with 40MVA = 0.025p.u.) + impedance of Transformer which is 4% impedance so z transf (p.u.) = 4% = 0.04
so total z(p.u.) = 0.04 + 0.025 = 0.065 right ?
if my interpretation is correct, than many thanks. I think I got it.
Cheers..
1
Thanks Zach, and I agree one can check the work also.Correct. And since Vpu = 1, the per unit short circuit current is equal to the inverse of the equivalent per unit impedance, or: Ipu = 1/Zeq-pu.
In my opinion, these type of simple fault problems are easier to solve with the MVA method, including this one. We can use it to verify the solution. For example, the total apparent power at the fault is 15.38MVA:
The magnitude of the short-circuit current at the faulted 480V bus is 18.5kA:
- Sf = 40MVA//(1,000kVA/4%)
- Sf = 15.38MVA
- |Isc| = 15.38MVA/(√3·480V)
- |Isc| = 18.5kA
Hi Kris,What does 40MVA//(1,000kVA/4%) mean? I think I am confused as to what the // mean?
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