I was solving a practice question and
there is a single rectangular footing that is loaded with a single column, but this column is away from the center of the footing in both directions.
when calculating the max stress, they calculate the L'=L-2e and B'=B-2e and find an effective area and then simply divide the vertical load with this area to find the maximum stress.
This is the end of chapter practice problem in All in One book by Goswami, problem number 206-2
My question is, why didnt we use the sigma max , min = P/B+- 6Pe/B2 formula there? (and then add the max stresses to each other?)
first of all, the eccentricity is less than B/6 in one of the directions in the question anyway. Then how come did they make the effective area less by shortening both directions width? because if e<B/6, the effective width is still equal to B. at least in one direction in this question anyway.
I think I am missing something here, please help...
there is a single rectangular footing that is loaded with a single column, but this column is away from the center of the footing in both directions.
when calculating the max stress, they calculate the L'=L-2e and B'=B-2e and find an effective area and then simply divide the vertical load with this area to find the maximum stress.
This is the end of chapter practice problem in All in One book by Goswami, problem number 206-2
My question is, why didnt we use the sigma max , min = P/B+- 6Pe/B2 formula there? (and then add the max stresses to each other?)
first of all, the eccentricity is less than B/6 in one of the directions in the question anyway. Then how come did they make the effective area less by shortening both directions width? because if e<B/6, the effective width is still equal to B. at least in one direction in this question anyway.
I think I am missing something here, please help...
